Inscriptions (104)
AE 1899, 113; AE 1971, 33; AE 1982, 131; AE 1992, 1920; AE 2002, 399; AE 2005, 1112; AE 2006, 317; AEA 2009, 19; AEA 2013, 57; AntAfr 1997, 134; BCTH 1932, 307; BCTH 1951, 184; BCTH 1954, 52; 122; CIL 2, 1167; 1168; CIL 25, 1322; CIL 3, 549; 762; 836; 5734; 5743; 6025; CIL 5, 4317; CIL 6, 401; 952; 984; 1002; 2084; 2085; 2086; 31553; CIL 8, 1295; 1548; 2653; 2693; 2694; 4203; 4204; 10439; 12513; 16368; 18509; 20682; 21825; 22210; 23599; 26524; 26606; CIL 9, 2553; 5353; 5428; CIL 10, 832; 1640; 3831; 3832; 6891; 7939; CIL 11, 1425; 3363; 6162; 6664; CIL 12, 594; 4342; CIL 14, 97; 98; 2795; 4359; 5336; CIL 15, 7953; CIL 16, 87; 90; 106; CIL 172, 27; CIL 174, 115; CILA 31, 84; EAOR 7, 13; EE 81, 204; Epigraphica 2002, 133; Gerasa 15; Grbic 204; IGLAlexa 69; ILAlg 1, 3875; ILLPRON 597; IMS 6, 200; IMustis 6; InscrIt 105, 99; IRT 316; 372; JOAI 18Beiblatt, 23; LBIRNA 136; 137; 188; Ness 165; 215; RMD 1, 50; SEG 41, 1106; SEG 52, 1496; SpecNova 2004, 156; TAM 2, 408; ZPE 136, 286; ZPE 172, 271; ZPE 183, 241; ZPE 197, 219;
